Think about the following.
We have an aleph (which, I have been explained, is an infinite set) of real numbers (e.g. 1 – 2 – 3 – to infinity).
Then we have an aleph of numbers with one decimal place (e.g. 1.1 – 1.2 – 1.3 – 1.4 – to infinity).
Can we say aleph 2 is bigger than the former? To prove that, we’d have to take a chunk off, but then it wouldn’t be an aleph anymore. Can we say, then, at least, that aleph 2 is richer than aleph 1? And does that make a difference in infinity?
If infinity is aleph to the 1, is total nothingness then consequently aleph to the -1?
Proclaimer: This is not a revision rant, just a procrastination rant. I am strictly a student of History and of Sociology.