March 08, 2005

Original Sin

I am attempting to write my Epic essay on Virgil and Milton. As you can see, I'm not getting very far.

But I have had a thought.

The reason given by many Christian denominations in past times for the subordination of women was that we were being punished for Eve's "original" sin. Equally, many denominations still believe that a child must be baptised to remove the sin it has been born with, i.e. that it was created through sex, which was made sinful by Eve's eating the forbidden fruit. Ok.

But this means that because our most ancient ancestor commited a sin, we ourselves are in some way imbued with this sin. But why? If this is so, why are we not affected by the sins of all our ancestors? I am sinful because Eve was sinful, but does this also mean that if my Great great great great grandfather was a murderer, that I am also affected by his sin?


- 3 comments by 1 or more people Not publicly viewable

  1. Thats an interesting thought. Hmmm, indeed.

    Ooooh, an essay on Virgil. Have fun. ;)

    08 Mar 2005, 16:20

  2. I Am Not A Theologian But…

    As I understand it the argument is that god gets to say which sins are hereditary and which aren't. It's his universe, so he gets to make the rules. Evidently (if you believe Genesis) he chose to make eating from the tree of knowledge the kind of sin that is inherited.

    It seems unfair to me that god didn't explain the consequences of disobedience to Adam and Eve, but I guess if you believe in god, you believe that he gets to decide what is and isn't fair.

    08 Mar 2005, 16:36

  3. And sex ain't a sin.

    Just so you know. :)

    I think, don't quote me on this, that sin gets passed down like choice does.

    Er…I'm really not explaining this very well. But if your grandad murdered someone, for example, then the consequences of the actions would still be about, even if they were not as a result of somehting you did.

    Let me try and form a sentence, and I'll have another go later. :)

    15 Mar 2005, 15:32

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